Yes, this would work both/all ways. Obtaining sex by fraud should be no more legal than obtaining access to someone's property through fraud. All forms of nonconsensual sexual may be considered rape and are in most jurisdictions. By more broad legal definition, one must understand the nature of any transaction in order to be able to agree to it. You cannot give consent if you don't have access to the facts of the arrangement.

As for specific instances, a judge would need to instruct the jury on the legal definitions that are relevant to the particular case in that jurisdiction. Whether or not it would legally be considered non-consensual sex due to fraudulent deception would depend on the specifics of each case.